Originally posted by Rajk999 Jesus is the Word. He was God and with God, according to John 1:1 KJV translation. So clearly there are two entities here. Nothing here about being EQUAL TO God. However there are other references which say that God is GREATER OR THE HEAD OF Christ.
It is these kinds of verses in John 1:1 that require one to revert to the Septuagint. Strongs concordanc ...[text shortened]... or has divine qualities is correct.
TO claim that Christ = God His Father is completely false.
It is these kinds of verses in John 1:1 that require one to revert to the Septuagint. Strongs concordance is a great help here. Check the word used for God in John 1:1. It is the same Greek word used here in John 10
It is these kinds of verses in John 1:1 that require one to revert to the Septuagint. Strongs concordance is a great help here. Check the word used for God in John 1:1. It is the same Greek word used here in John 10
Originally posted by leunammi re you telling me that the Septuagint is not a translation of the OT?
The Septuagint [what Paul called SCRIPTURE] is the Greek translation of the Hebrew Tanak.
Google it and do some private study. I dont think you would appreciate me telling you anything and I am not so inclined to waste my time, because you are not the receptive type.
Originally posted by chaney3 Who said Dive knows anything?
Maybe God was saying...."there is only one God"......
Because there is only one God.
Jesus is not God.
Maybe God was saying...."there is only one God"......
Almost correct chaney3.
I believe Mark 12:29-30 is Jesus quoting Moses saying that "God is one":
Deuteronomy 6
4“Hear, O Israel! The LORD is our God, the LORD is one! 5“You shall love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your might.
It makes absolutely no sense that this is Jesus claiming to be God - if that was what was intended.
The way some take a verse or two out of context and pretend that it means something it obviously does not is remarkable. They really don't care what the Bible does or doesn't say. They only care about trying to support what they believe - no matter how nonsensical.
And then they have the temerity to tell you that it is YOU who has to study?
Originally posted by ThinkOfOne [b]Maybe God was saying...."there is only one God"......
Almost correct chaney3.
I believe Mark 12:29-30 is Jesus quoting Moses saying that "God is one":
Deuteronomy 6
4“Hear, O Israel! The LORD is our God, the LORD is one! 5“You shall love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your might.
...[text shortened]... how nonsensical.
And then they have the temerity to tell you that it is YOU who has to study?[/b]
What then is your suggestion with regards to chaney3?
Originally posted by Rajk999 The Septuagint [what Paul called SCRIPTURE] is the Greek translation of the Hebrew Tanak.
Google it and do some private study. I dont think you would appreciate me telling you anything and I am not so inclined to waste my time, because you are not the receptive type.
I know what the Septuagint is, you indicated in many posts back to use it for John 1:1 or suggested as much. John 1:1 is NT. I was asking what you meant. Why do you have such a problem with a question?
Originally posted by leunammi He has many giving him different perspectives, if not studying for oneself to learn about a thing is something you thing is a good thing, then what?
Oh, I see. You had the question at the end in mind.
The point wasn't that he shouldn't study for himself. The point was that it seemed that the person suggesting that he study for himself should be looking in the mirror given the citation of Mark 12:29 in the context it was given.
@sonship: The trinity doctrine and salvation
25 Dec '16 05:09
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